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July 3, 2024, 1:08 am / znhkjdu389.full-design.com

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Palo Alto Networks PCSFE Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Differentiate between software firewalls Describe licensing options for software firewalls
Topic 2	Describe Cloud NGFW log forwarding destinations Management Plugins and Log Forwarding
Topic 3	Describe common VM-Series deployment models Explain the use of VM-Series firewalls in centralized and distributed environments
Topic 4	Troubleshoot CN-Series software firewalls Explain the deployment process for VM-Series software firewalls using third-party marketplaces
Topic 5	Explain how Intelligent Traffic Offload (ITO) integrates with VM-Series firewalls Explain the deployment process for CN-Series software firewalls using Panorama
Topic 6	Troubleshoot VM-Series software firewalls Troubleshoot Cloud NGFW software firewalls
Topic 7	Describe VM-Series private cloud integrations Explain how traffic flow is secured in virtualized branch environments
Topic 8	Describe methodologies for securing data centers Explain how traffic flow is secured in public cloud environments

Palo Alto Networks Certified Software Firewall Engineer Sample Questions (Q52-Q57):

NEW QUESTION # 52
How is traffic directed to a Palo Alto Networks firewall integrated with Cisco ACI?

A. By using contracts between endpoint groups that send traffic to the firewall using a shared policy
B. Through a virtual machine (VM) monitor domain
C. By creating an access policy
D. Through a policy-based redirect

Answer: D

Explanation:
Traffic is directed to a Palo Alto Networks firewall integrated with Cisco ACI through a policy-based redirect. Cisco ACI is a software-defined network (SDN) solution that provides network automation, orchestration, and visibility. A policy-based redirect is a mechanism that allows Cisco ACI to redirect traffic from one endpoint group (EPG) to another EPG through a service device, such as a Palo Alto Networks firewall. The firewall can then inspect and enforce security policies on the redirected traffic before sending it back to Cisco ACI. Traffic is not directed to a Palo Alto Networks firewall integrated with Cisco ACI by using contracts between endpoint groups that send traffic to the firewall using a shared policy, through a virtual machine (VM) monitor domain, or by creating an access policy, as those are not valid methods for traffic redirection in Cisco ACI. Reference: Palo Alto Networks Certified Software Firewall Engineer (PCSFE), [Deploy the VM-Series Firewall on Cisco ACI], [Cisco ACI Policy-Based Redirect]

NEW QUESTION # 53
Which two deployment modes of VM-Series firewalls are supported across NSX-T? (Choose two.)

A. Bootstrap
B. Prism Central
C. Service Cluster
D. Host-based

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
The two deployment modes of VM-Series firewalls that are supported across NSX-T are:
Bootstrap
Service Cluster
NSX-T is a software-defined network (SDN) solution that provides network virtualization, automation, and security for cloud-native applications. Bootstrap is a method of deploying and configuring VM-Series firewalls in NSX-T using a bootstrap package that contains the initial setup information, such as licenses, certificates, software updates, and configuration files. Service Cluster is a mode of deploying VM-Series firewalls in NSX-T as a group of firewalls that act as a single logical firewall to provide scalability and high availability. Prism Central, Host-based, and Service Insertion are not deployment modes of VM-Series firewalls in NSX-T, but they are related concepts that can be used for other purposes. Reference: Palo Alto Networks Certified Software Firewall Engineer (PCSFE), [Deploy the VM-Series Firewall on NSX-T], [Bootstrap the VM-Series Firewall for NSX-T], [Deploy the VM-Series Firewall as a Service Cluster on NSX-T]

NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following can provide application-level security for a web-server instance on Amazon Web Services (AWS)?

A. Hardware firewalls
B. VM-Series firewalls
C. Terraform templates
D. Security groups

Answer: B

Explanation:
VM-Series firewalls can provide application-level security for a web-server instance on Amazon Web Services (AWS). VM-Series firewalls are virtualized versions of the Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewall that can be deployed on various cloud platforms, including AWS. VM-Series firewalls can protect web servers from cyberattacks by applying granular security policies based on application, user, content, and threat information. Hardware firewalls, Terraform templates, and security groups are not solutions that can provide application-level security for a web-server instance on AWS, but they are related concepts that can be used in conjunction with VM-Series firewalls. Reference: Palo Alto Networks Certified Software Firewall Engineer (PCSFE), [VM-Series on AWS], [VM-Series Datasheet], [Terraform for VM-Series on AWS], [Security Groups for Your VPC]

NEW QUESTION # 55
Which two routing options are supported by VM-Series? (Choose two.)

A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. IGRP
D. BGP

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
The two routing options that are supported by VM-Series are:
OSPF
BGP
Routing is a process that determines the best path for sending network packets from a source to a destination. Routing options are protocols or methods that enable routing between different networks or devices. VM-Series firewall is a virtualized version of the Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewall that can be deployed on various cloud or virtualization platforms. VM-Series firewall supports various routing options that allow it to participate in dynamic routing environments and exchange routing information with other routers or devices. OSPF and BGP are two routing options that are supported by VM-Series. OSPF is a routing option that uses link-state routing algorithm to determine the shortest path between routers within an autonomous system (AS). BGP is a routing option that uses path vector routing algorithm to determine the best path between routers across different autonomous systems (ASes). RIP and IGRP are not routing options that are supported by VM-Series, but they are related protocols that can be used for other purposes. Reference: [Palo Alto Networks Certified Software Firewall Engineer (PCSFE)], [VM-Series Deployment Guide], [Routing Overview], [What is OSPF?], [What is BGP?]

NEW QUESTION # 56
Which service, when enabled, provides inbound traffic protection?

A. Threat Prevention
B. Data loss prevention (DLP)
C. Advanced URL Filtering (AURLF)
D. DNS Security

Answer: D

Explanation:
DNS Security is a service that provides inbound traffic protection by preventing DNS-based attacks. DNS Security uses machine learning and threat intelligence to identify and block malicious domains, command and control (C2) traffic, and DNS tunneling. Reference: [DNS Security]

NEW QUESTION # 57
......

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Topic	Details
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Topic 2	Organizational structures: The topic explains tasks related to Organizational Structures.
Topic 3	Basic Functions (customizing): This topic focuses on tasks related to Basic Functions (customizing).
Topic 4	Billing process and customizing: This topic explains tasks related to Billing (basics). It also focuses on customization settings that are essential to perform basic billing processes.

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SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP S/4HANA Sales 2022 Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):

NEW QUESTION # 24
When an outbound delivery is created for a sales order, from which object does the system determine the default delivery type to be used?

A. Shipping point
B. Shipping conditions
C. Sales order item category
D. Sales order type

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 25
You want to ensure that only complete sales documents can be saved How can you achieve this?

A. Set dialogue message for incompletion flag in the configuration for the relevant sales document types,
B. Assign an incompleteness procedure to all schedule line categories used in sales.
C. Set the No Change Possible flag in the partner determination procedure of the sold-to party,
D. Activate the General option in status groups used in checks for sales document header fields,

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 26
When you create a business partner, allocation of the business partner number is controlled by a number range assigned to which object?

A. Account group
B. Business partner category
C. Business partner grouping
D. Business partner role

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 27
What settings should you make to ensure precise scheduling is used when the system performs delivery scheduling? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question,

A. Assign a shift sequence to the working times,
B. Assign a set of working times to the shipping point
C. Maintain shifts defining the time for the starting and ending work,
D. Assign a set of working times to the plant
E. Maintain the transit time in the route in hours and minutes,

Answer: B,C,D

NEW QUESTION # 28
Which settings do the cash sales process and the rush order process have in common? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The immediate delivery setting
B. The item category determination
C. The lead time in days
D. The billing type settings

Answer: B,D

NEW QUESTION # 29
......

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USGBC LEED AP Interior Design + Construction (LEED AP ID+C) V4 Sample Questions (Q39-Q44):

NEW QUESTION # 39
Based on the results of a six-hour waste stream study, the team for an Interior Design and Construction Retail project plans to provide dedicated areas for four recyclable waste streams: cardboard, plastic, metal, and paper.
The project is open to the public 10 hours a day, six days a week. Which of the following actions should be the project team's top priority in order to demonstrate the minimum requirements to achieve Materials and Resources Prerequisite, Storage and Collection of Recyclables?

A. Extend the waste stream study to cover a representative time period of a minimum of 24 hours to identify the top five recyclable waste streams
B. Make a waste stream projection for the entire year based on the six hours of the waste stream study
C. Take appropriate measures for the safe collection, storage and disposal of batteries
D. Make a waste stream projection for the entire week, based on the six hours of the waste stream study

Answer: A

Explanation:
For the Materials and Resources Prerequisite, Storage and Collection of Recyclables, the project team must demonstrate that they can effectively manage and divert waste from landfills. Extending the waste stream study to a minimum of 24 hours will provide a more accurate representation of the waste generated and the recyclable streams. This is essential to identify the top five recyclable waste streams, which is a requirement for this prerequisite.
References: The LEED v4 reference guide for Interior Design and Construction specifies that a waste stream audit must cover a representative time period to accurately identify the project's waste streams1. Additionally, the LEEDuser website provides guidance on how to conduct a waste stream audit and the importance of identifying the main types of recyclable waste1.

NEW QUESTION # 40
A project owner requests that additional outside air be provided to the building occupants in order to improve employee health, welfare, well-being and productivity. However, doing so could make it more difficult to achieve which credit?

A. Indoor Environmental Quality Credit, Acoustic Performance
B. Energy and Atmosphere Credit, Optimize Energy Performance
C. Energy and Atmosphere Credit, Advanced Energy Metering
D. Indoor Environmental Quality Credit, Enhanced Indoor Air Quality Strategies

Answer: B

Explanation:
Providing additional outside air can impact the energy consumption of a building, as it may require more energy to heat or cool this air to maintain comfortable indoor conditions. This can make it more challenging to achieve the Energy and Atmosphere Credit for Optimizing Energy Performance, which aims to reduce energy use and associated environmental impacts1.
References:
* LEED v4: Interior Design + Construction Guide1.
* LEED v4.1 Reference Guide for Interior Design and Construction2.
* LEED v4 for Interior Design and Construction - current version3.

NEW QUESTION # 41
What primary role does the LEED AP have during the LEED certification process?

A. Determines the LEED certification status of the project
B. Runs weekly construction meetings
C. Helps project team members understand the rating system
D. Authors the Owner's Project Requirements (OPR) document

Answer: C

Explanation:
The primary role of a LEED AP during the LEED certification process is to assist project team members in understanding the LEED rating system. A LEED AP possesses advanced knowledge in green building practices and expertise in a specific LEED rating system, which enables them to facilitate the project's certification process by guiding the team through the requirements and credits of the LEED system1.
References:
* Information about the role of LEED AP can be found in the LEED professional credentials section on the U.S. Green Building Council website1.
* Additional details on the responsibilities and benefits of being a LEED AP are available in resources provided by the Green Building Certification Institute and other green building education platforms23.

NEW QUESTION # 42
The project material costs for Building Product Disclosure and Optimization cost-based credits are

A. actual costs, furniture included
B. actual costs, furniture optional
C. default costs, 30% of total construction cost
D. default costs, 40% of total construction cost

Answer: B

Explanation:
The costs considered for Building Product Disclosure and Optimization (BPDO) cost-based credits should reflect the actual costs of the materials used in the project. Furniture is considered optional for these calculations. This approach allows for flexibility in reporting and aligns with the intent of the BPDO credits to encourage the use of sustainable materials.
References: The information is based on the guidelines provided by the U.S. Green Building Council for LEED v4 ID+C MR Credits Building Product Disclosure and Optimization1234.

NEW QUESTION # 43
In a goal-setting workshop, a project team identifies that teleworking could reduce building area and therefore the required plug loads. What is a requirement for the documentation of the energy-related systems of the Integrative Process worksheet?

A. Providing explanations of at least two plug load reduction strategies
B. Providing calculations of only the plug load reduction
C. Providing a narrative of one plug load reduction
D. Providing detailed comparative energy model before completing schematic design to evaluate energy load reduction strategies

Answer: D

Explanation:
For the documentation of the energy-related systems of the Integrative Process worksheet, it is required to provide a detailed comparative energy model before completing the schematic design. This model evaluates energy load reduction strategies, including plug load reductions. The process involves analyzing various strategies to understand their impact on the building's energy performance, thereby enabling the project team to make informed decisions on which strategies to implement1.
References:
* Integrative Process Worksheet for the Integrative Process credits in the BD+C and ID+C rating systems1.
* Understanding Integrative Design in LEEDv42.

NEW QUESTION # 44
......

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Nutanix Certified Professional - Cloud Integration - Azure (NCP-CI-Azure v6.7) Sample Questions (Q21-Q26):

NEW QUESTION # 21
An administrator is tasked with creating a new subnet for a group of VMs that require inbound internet access.
Internal private addresses must be obscured to servers on the public internet.
Which network is best suited for satisfying this requirement?

A. Bastion based network
B. Layer 2 Stretch network
C. NAT based network
D. No-NAT based network

Answer: C

Explanation:
* NAT Based Network:A NAT-based network is designed to provide inbound and outbound internet access while obscuring the internal private addresses. This setup uses Network Address Translation (NAT) to map internal IP addresses to a public IP address, ensuring that internal addresses are not exposed to the public internet.
* Security and Connectivity:NAT provides a layer of security by hiding internal IP addresses and allowing controlled access to external resources. This configuration is well-suited for VMs that need to communicate with servers on the public internet while maintaining the privacy of their internal network addresses.
References:
* Azure Virtual Network NAT Documentation
* Nutanix Networking and Security Configuration Guide

NEW QUESTION # 22
An administrator wants to ensure that enough available bandwidth exits for workloads running in an NC2 on Azure cluster environment.
What is the highest number of Flew Gateway VMs that can be deployed within this environment?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Flow Gateway VMs: Flow Gateway VMs are used to manage and route network traffic within an NC2 on Azure cluster, ensuring sufficient bandwidth for workloads.
* Scalability: To ensure enough available bandwidth, multiple Flow Gateway VMs can be deployed.
* Maximum Limit: The highest number of Flow Gateway VMs that can be deployed within an NC2 on Azure environment is 6, providing the necessary capacity to handle high traffic volumes and ensure optimal performance.
* Conclusion: Deploying up to 6 Flow Gateway VMs ensures adequate bandwidth for NC2 workloads.
References:
* Nutanix Clusters Networking Guide
* Azure Network Performance Documentation

NEW QUESTION # 23
An administrator needs to open the following ports in the firewall between an on-premises cluster and azure for disaster recovery:
* 22
* 2009
* 2020
* 2049
* 3260
* 9440
Which rile-type should be created on the firewall for communication to be appropriately established?

A. Bi-directional (ICMP)
B. Outbound (ICMP)
C. Bi-directional (TCP)
D. Outbound (TCP)

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Port Requirements: The specified ports (22, 2009, 2020, 2049, 3260, 9440) are commonly used for various services and require TCP communication.
* Port 22: SSH
* Port 2009: Used for Nutanix internal communication
* Port 2020: Nutanix services
* Port 2049: NFS
* Port 3260: iSCSI
* Port 9440: Nutanix Prism management
* Communication Type: To ensure proper disaster recovery setup, bi-directional communication is needed to allow traffic to flow both from on-premises to Azure and vice versa.
* TCP Protocol: These ports use the TCP protocol, which provides reliable communication between devices.
* Conclusion: Creating a bi-directional (TCP) rule on the firewall allows the necessary communication for disaster recovery processes.
References:
* Nutanix Networking and Security Documentation
* Azure Networking Documentation

NEW QUESTION # 24
An administrator ran into an issue during an NC2 cluster deployment on Azure. The administrator has logged a case with Nutanix Support.
Support has requested the following logs from NC2 on Azure in order to diagnose the deployment issue:
* Cluster_agent
* Host_agent
* Hostsetup
What action should the administrator take to ensure the collect the appropriate logs?

A. SSH to the PCVM and use the logbay collect command.
B. Login to Prism Element to access the CVM's console and run the logbay collect command.
C. SSH to the CVM and use the logbay collect command.
D. Login to Prism Element Web Console to generate a Logbay bundle.

Answer: B

Explanation:
To collect the appropriate logs (Cluster_agent, Host_agent, and Hostsetup) for diagnosing the deployment issue with Nutanix Support, the administrator should:
* Log in to Prism Element to access the Controller VM (CVM) console.
* Run thelogbay collectcommand from the CVM console. This command collects the necessary logs and packages them for support.
This method ensures that the correct logs are gathered in a format that Nutanix Support can analyze.
References
* Nutanix Support Documentation on Log Collection

NEW QUESTION # 25
An administrator is tasked with preparing the company's Azure subscription for use with NCZ.
Which two Azure Resource Providers need to be registered? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft.HybridCompute
B. Microsoft.Network
C. Microsoft.Nutanix
D. Microsoft.HybridNetwork

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
* Azure Resource Providers: To prepare an Azure subscription for NC2, specific resource providers must be registered to enable necessary services and resources.
* Required Providers:
* Microsoft.Network: This provider is essential for networking functionalities, including virtual networks, subnets, and other network resources necessary for NC2 deployment.
* Microsoft.Nutanix: This provider is specifically required for integrating and managing Nutanix resources within the Azure environment.
* Other Providers:
* Microsoft.HybridNetworkandMicrosoft.HybridCompute: These are not specifically required for NC2 but might be relevant for other hybrid or extended network configurations.
* Conclusion: Registering both "Microsoft.Network" and "Microsoft.Nutanix" ensures that all necessary network and Nutanix-specific resources are available for NC2 deployment.
References:
* Azure Resource Providers Documentation
* Nutanix on Azure Setup Guide

NEW QUESTION # 26
......

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Fortinet NSE 7 - LAN Edge 7.0 Sample Questions (Q10-Q15):

NEW QUESTION # 10
What is the purpose of enabling Windows Active Directory Domain Authentication on FortiAuthenticator?

A. It enables FortiAuthenticator to use Windows administrator credentials to perform an LDAP lookup for a user search
B. It enables FortiAuthenticator to import users from Windows AD
C. It enables FortiAuthenticator to use a Windows CA certificate when authenticating RADIUS users
D. It enables FortiAuthenticator to register itself as a Windows trusted device to proxy authentication using Kerberos

Answer: D

Explanation:
Windows Active Directory domain authentication enables FortiAuthenticator to join a Windows Active Directory domain as a machine entity and proxy authentication requests using Kerberos.

NEW QUESTION # 11
You are investigating a report of poor wireless performance in a network that you manage. The issue is related to an AP interface in the 5 GHz range You are monitoring the channel utilization over time.
What is the recommended maximum utilization value that an interface should not exceed?

A. 85%
B. 75%
C. 65%
D. 95%

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the FortiAP Configuration Guide, "Channel utilization measures how busy a channel is over a given period of time. It includes both Wi-Fi and non-Wi-Fi interference sources. A high channel utilization indicates a congested channel and can result in poor wireless performance. The recommended maximum utilization value that an interface should not exceed is 65%." Therefore, option D is true because it gives the recommended maximum utilization value for an interface in the 5 GHz range. Options A, B, and C are false because they give higher utilization values that can cause poor wireless performance.
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/7.0.0/configuration-guide/734537/wireless-radio-settings#channel-uti

NEW QUESTION # 12
You are investigating a report of poor wireless performance in a network that you manage. The issue is related to an AP interface in the 5 GHz range. You are monitoring the channel utilization over time.
What is the recommended maximum utilization value that an interface should not exceed?

A. 65%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 95%

Answer: B

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 13
Refer to the exhibits

The exhibits show the wireless network (VAP) SSID profiles defined on FortiManager and an AP profile assigned to a group of APs that are supported by FortiGate None of the APs are broadcasting the SSlDs defined by the AP profile Which changes do you need to make to enable the SSIDs to broadcast?

A. Enable one channel in the Channels section
B. In the SSIDs section enable Manual and assign the networks manually
C. Enable multiple channels in the Channels section and enable Radio Resource Provision
D. In the SSIDs section enable Tunnel

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the FortiManager Administration Guide1, "To enable the SSID, you must select at least one channel for the radio. If no channels are selected, the SSID will not be enabled." Therefore, enabling one channel in the Channels section will allow the SSIDs to broadcast.

NEW QUESTION # 14
Which FortiSwitch VLANs are automatically created on FortGate when the first FortiSwitch device is discovered1?

A. default quarantine rspan voice video and nac_segment
B. access, quarantine, rspan. voice, video, and onboarding
C. default quarantine, rspan voice video onboarding and nac_segment
D. fortilink. quarantine erspan voice video and onboarding

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the FortiGate Administration Guide, "When you add a FortiSwitch device to the Security Fabric, FortiGate automatically creates the following VLANs on theFortiSwitch device: fortilink, quarantine, erspan, voice, video, and onboarding." Therefore, option D is true because it lists the FortiSwitch VLANs that are automatically created on FortiGate when the first FortiSwitch device is discovered. Option A is false because default and nac_segment are not among the automatically created VLANs. Option B is false because access and rspan are not among the automatically created VLANs. Option C is false because default and nac_segment are not among the automatically created VLANs.

NEW QUESTION # 15
......

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